Let
\begin{equation*}
g(x) = f(x) +(x-a) \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}-f(a).
\end{equation*}
Then
\begin{equation*}
g'(x) = f'(x) -\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}
\end{equation*}
and evaluated \(g\) on the endpoints of the interval shows that
\begin{equation*}
\begin{aligned} g(a) \amp = f(a) + (a-a) \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}- f(a) = 0, \\ g(b)\amp= f(b) + (b-a) \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}- f(a) = 0.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation*}
Since \(f\) is continuous on \([a,b]\) and differentiable of \((a,b)\text{,}\) so is \(g\) and therefore \(g\) satisfies Rolle’s Theorem. Then there exists a number \(c\) in the interval \((a,b)\) such that \(g'(c)=0\) or
\begin{align*}
g'(c) \amp = f'(c) - \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}= 0\\
\text{or} \qquad \amp \\
f'(c) \amp = \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}
\end{align*}
so the theorem holds.