We will show that \(\langle \phi_{k}, \phi_{j} \rangle = 0\) for all \(j \lt k\text{.}\) We will do this by induction on \(k\text{.}\) For the base case,
\begin{equation*}
\begin{aligned} \langle \phi_{1}, \phi_{0} \rangle \amp = \int_a^b w(x) (1)(x-B_1) \, dx \\ \amp = \int_a^b x w(x) \, dx - B_1 \int_a^b w(x) \,dx \\ \amp = \int_a^b x w(x) \,dx - \left( \frac{\int_{a}^{b} x w(x)\, dx}{\int_{a}^{b} w(x) \, dx}\right) \int_a^b w(x) \,dx = 0 \end{aligned}
\end{equation*}
Assume that \(\langle \phi_{i}, \phi_{j} \rangle = 0\) for all \(i \neq j\text{.}\) To show the induction there are two cases. For the first case,
\begin{equation*}
\begin{aligned} \langle \phi_k, \phi_{k-1} \rangle \amp = \int_{a}^{b} w(x) \bigl((x-B_{k})\phi_{k-1}(x) - C_{k}\phi_{k-2}(x)\bigr) \phi_{k-1}(x) \, dx\\ \amp = \int_a^b w(x) x \phi_{k-1}^2 \,dx - B_k \int_a^bw(x) \phi_{k-1}^2 \,dx - C_k \int_a^b w(x) \phi_{k-1} \phi_{k-2} \end{aligned}
\end{equation*}
where
(6.3.4) is used in the first step. Also, the third term above is 0 since
\(\langle \phi_{k-1}, \phi_{k-2}\rangle = 0 \text{.}\) Then substituting
\(B_k\) from
(6.3.5),
\begin{equation*}
\begin{aligned} \langle \phi_k, \phi_{k-1} \rangle \amp = \int_a^b w(x) x \phi_{k-1}^2 \,dx - \left(\frac{\int_{a}^{b} x w(x) \phi_{k-1}^2\, dx}{\int_{a}^{b} w(x) \phi_{k-1}^2 \, dx}\right) \int_a^bw(x) \phi_{k-1}^2 \,dx \end{aligned}
\end{equation*}
which is 0 after canceling terms. Then,
\begin{equation*}
\begin{aligned} \langle \phi_k, \phi_{k-2} \rangle \amp = \int_{a}^{b} w(x) \bigl((x-B_{k})\phi_{k-1}(x) - C_{k}\phi_{k-2}(x)\bigr) \phi_{k-2}(x) \, dx\\ \amp =\int_a^b w(x) x \phi_{k-1}\phi_{k-2} \, dx - B_k \int_a^b w(x) \phi_{k-1}\phi_{k-2} \, dx - C_k \int_a^b w(x) \phi_{k-2}^2 \, dx \end{aligned}
\end{equation*}
For this case, the 2nd terms is zero because
\(\langle \phi_{k-1}, \phi_{k-2}\rangle = 0\) and then using
(6.3.6),
\begin{equation*}
\begin{aligned} \langle \phi_k, \phi_{k-2} \rangle \amp = \int_a^b w(x) x \phi_{k-1}\phi_{k-2} \, dx - \left( \frac{\int_{a}^{b} x w(x) \phi_{k-1} \phi_{k-2}\, dx}{\int_{a}^{b} w(x) \phi_{k-2}^2 \, dx}\right) \int_a^b w(x) \phi_{k-2}^2 \, dx \end{aligned}
\end{equation*}
which is 0 after canceling terms.
The last case is when \(j \leq k-2\) or
\begin{equation*}
\begin{aligned} \langle \phi_k, \phi_j \rangle \amp = \int_{a}^{b} w(x) \bigl((x-B_{k})\phi_{k-1}(x) - C_{k}\phi_{k-2}(x)\bigr) \phi_{j}(x) \, dx\\ \amp = \int_a^b x w(x) \phi_{k-1} \phi_{j} \, dx - B_k \int_a^b w(x) \phi_{k-1}\phi_j \, dx - C_k \int_a^b w(x) \phi_{k-2} \phi_j \end{aligned}
\end{equation*}
At this point, the 2nd and 3rd integrals are zero from orthogonality. The first integral can be interpreted as the inner product between \(\phi_{k-1}\) and a polynomial of degree \(j+1\) and since \(j \leq k-2\text{,}\) then this is a smaller degree and a consequence of orthogonality is that any polynomial is orthogonal to any lower degree polynomial so the first term is also 0.