Example 8.4.1.
Solve the initial value problem
\begin{equation*}
y' = y, \quad y(0) = 1,
\end{equation*}
for some non-zero real constant \(r\) using power series.
Solution.
\begin{equation*}
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} n a_n x^{n-1} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n x^n
\end{equation*}
We will use the method of underdetermined coefficients which is a general techniques that is used to find the coefficients of variables functions (polynomials, sines and cosines or exponentials ) which sets the coefficients on both sides of an example to the same.
In this case, we match similar powers and it is easier if the series on the left is written in term of \(x^{n}\) instead of \(x^{n-1}\) and we can change this by first noting that we can start incrementing at \(n=1\) instead, because the first term is 0.
\begin{equation*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} n a_n x^{n-1} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n x^n
\end{equation*}
and then if we let \(k=n-1\) or \(n= k+1\text{,}\) then the left side becomes
\begin{equation*}
\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (k+1) a_{k+1} x^k = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n x^n
\end{equation*}
and lastly since the index variable doesn’t matter, let’s switch back to \(n\) using \(k=n\text{.}\)
1
Wait. You might be thinking "Wait. First you said \(n=k+1\) and then \(n=k\text{.}\) How can these both be true?" That is some good thinking there are your part. However, since both \(n\) and \(k\) are just indexes, they aren’t variables in the power series. Write out a handful of terms of each of the series on the left sides above and you will see that they are equivalent. We just write them differently.
\begin{equation*}
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (n+1) a_{n+1} x^n = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n x^n
\end{equation*}
Now that powers are both sides are the same, this means that the coefficients must be the same or
\begin{equation*}
(n+1)a_{n+1} = a_n
\end{equation*}
or
\begin{equation*}
a_{n+1} = \frac{1}{n+1} a_n
\end{equation*}
and since we have the initial condition, plugging \(x=0\) into (8.4.1), results in \(a_0=1\text{.}\) If determining a formula for \(a_n\) is not clear, let’s try
\begin{equation*}
\begin{aligned} a_1 \amp = \frac{a_0}{1} = 1 \\ a_2 \amp = \frac{a_1}{2} = \frac{1}{2} \\ a_3 \amp = \frac{a_2}{3} = \frac{1}{2\cdot 3} \\ a_4 \amp = \frac{a_3}{4} = \frac{1}{2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4} \end{aligned}
\end{equation*}
and can be shown that in general
\begin{equation*}
a_n = \frac{1}{n!}
\end{equation*}
So the series solution will be substituting \(a_n\) into (8.4.1) or
\begin{equation*}
y = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} x^n
\end{equation*}
